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Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps exhibit
What is the effect of the bind interface eth 1/16 command on the vfc 130 interface?

  • A. It transitions the port to the forwarding state of the spanning tree automatically.
  • B. It attaches the FCoE interface to the VSAN interface.
  • C. It attaches the virtual Fibre Channel interface to the physical interface.
  • D. It attaches the physical Fibre Channel interface to the virtual Fibre Channel interfac

Answer: C

Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?

  • A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
  • B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
  • C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
  • D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zonin

Answer: A

Explanation: Enhanced zoning implements changes to the zoning database and distributes it without reactivation. Distribution of zone sets without activation avoids hardware changes for hard zoning in the switches. Reference: 871274

Which SCSI terminology is used to describe source and destination nodes?

  • A. hosts and targets
  • B. initiators and targets
  • C. HBA and disks
  • D. initiators and disks
  • E. HBA and targets

Answer: B

Explanation: In computer data storage, a SCSI initiator is the endpoint that initiates a SCSI session, that is, sends a SCSI command. The initiator usually does not provide any Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs).
On the other hand, a SCSI target is the endpoint that does not initiate sessions, but instead waits for initiators' commands and provides required input/output data transfers. The target usually provides to the initiators one or more LUNs, because otherwise no read or write command would be possible. Reference:

Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)

  • A. group-size
  • B. deadtime
  • C. timeout
  • D. keep-alive
  • E. retransmit

Answer: BCE

In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?

  • A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
  • B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
  • C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
  • D. forwarded using destination-based routing

Answer: D

Explanation: Each entry in a route map contains a combination of match and set statements. The match statements define the criteria for whether appropriate packets meet the particular policy (that is, the conditions to be met). The set clauses explain how the packets should be routed once they have met the match criteria.
You can mark the route-map statements as permit or deny. You can interpret the statements as follows:
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets meet the match criteria, the set clause is applied. One of these actions involves choosing the next hop.
• If a statement is marked as deny, the packets that meet the match criteria are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets do not match any route-map statements, the packets are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.

Which three selections represent implementations of Cisco VN-Link technology? (Choose three.)

  • A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
  • B. Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX
  • C. Cisco VM-FEX
  • D. VMware PTS
  • E. vMotion

Answer: ACD

Explanation: The VM is powered on and resides on the ESX Host 1 with all the information stored on the shared storage.
The VM was connected to the PODy (where y is the number of your POD) PTS VDS by associating it to port group VLAN61 that was created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 device. The VM has been connected to the vPC system automatically using a VN-Link in the hardware in PTS mode or in VM-FEX mode.
The VEM bits are used in PTS mode to connect the VM VNIC to the VMNIC interface.
In this case, the VMNIC interface is not a real VMNIC but a dynamic VNIC that is presented as an interface to the ESX OS. The dynamic VNIC is enabled when the Cisco UCS VIC creates and configures the VNIC parameters inherited from port group VLAN61.

Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?

  • A. radius server radius-server-name
  • B. aaa session-id common
  • C. radius-server vsa send authentication
  • D. aaa new-model

Answer: A

What is the result when the configured RTT of an FCIP link is smaller than the measured RTT?

  • A. The minimum available bandwidth for the link must be increased
  • B. The link might be oversubscribed.
  • C. The TCP sliding window constantly resets
  • D. The link might not be fully utilize

Answer: B

What must be enabled on the interface of a multicast-enabled device to support the Source Specific Multicast feature?

  • A. IGMP version 3
  • B. IGMP version 2
  • C. IGMP version 1
  • D. PIM

Answer: A

Explanation: IGMP is the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards track protocol used for hosts to signal multicast group membership to routers. Version 3 of this protocol supports source filtering, which is required for SSM. To run SSM with IGMPv3, SSM must be supported in the Cisco IOS router, the host where the application is running, and the application itself. IGMP v3lite and URD are two Ciscodeveloped transition solutions that enable the immediate development and deployment of SSM
services, without the need to wait for the availability of full IGMPv3 support in host operating systems and SSM receiver applications. IGMP v3lite is a solution for application developers that allows immediate development of SSM receiver applications switching to IGMPv3 as soon as it becomes available. URD is a solution for content providers and content aggregators that enables them to deploy receiver applications that are not yet SSM enabled (through support for IGMPv3). IGMPv3, IGMP v3lite, and URD interoperate with each other, so that both IGMP v3lite and URD can easily be used as transitional solutions toward full IGMPv3 support in hosts.

Which option describes the atomic rollback feature in Cisco NX-OS?

  • A. Rollback is implemented only if no errors occur.
  • B. Rollback is implemented and any errors are skipped.
  • C. Rollback is implemented and stops if an error occurs.
  • D. Rollback is implemented instantly and there is no option to cancel the operation if errors are encountered.

Answer: A

You enable the HSRP feature on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch. You must ensure that the switch manages packets that are sent to the local vPC MAC address, remote vPC MAC address, and HSRP virtual MAC address. Which command should you run?

  • A. Peer-gateway
  • B. hsrp preempt
  • C. map-server
  • D. peer-switch

Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps exhibit
What is the result of running the command?

  • A. The running config is backed up to the TFTP server by using a file named nexus-core-a-cfg.
  • B. The default VRF is used to establish a connection to the TFTP server.
  • C. The startup config file is backed up.
  • D. A timestamp is included in the name of the file that is backed up to the TFTP serve

Answer: A

You have a Cisco MDS switch that uses port channel. You must ensure that frames between the source and the destination follow the same links for a specific flow. Subsequent flows can use a different link, which load-balancing method do you use?

  • A. Source-destination-ip
  • B. Source-destioation-port
  • C. Flow
  • D. Source id-destination id-oxid

Answer: C

Which Cisco MDS feature needs to be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work?

  • A. feature Trust-Sec
  • B. feature ESP
  • C. feature FC-TSLE
  • D. feature FC-SP

Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps exhibit
What is the result when you run the force command?

  • A. Port channel mode uses force mode
  • B. The command forces the addition of a port to a SAN port channel.
  • C. The port is enabled and active.
  • D. The command forces the deletion of a port to a SAN port channe

Answer: B

Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?

  • A. VSS
  • B. domain parameters
  • C. virtual switches
  • D. AAA

Answer: B

Explanation: The Fibre Channel domain (fcdomain) feature performs principal switch selection, domain ID distribution, FC ID allocation, and fabric reconfiguration functions as described in the FC-SW-2 standards. The domains are configured on a per VSAN basis. If you do not configure a domain ID, the local switch uses a random ID.
This section describes each fcdomain phase:
• Principal switch selection — This phase guarantees the selection of a unique principal switch across the fabric.
• Domain ID distribution — This phase guarantees each switch in the fabric obtains a unique domain ID.
• FC ID allocation — This phase guarantees a unique FC ID assignment to each device attached to the corresponding switch in the fabric.
• Fabric reconfiguration — This phase guarantees a resynchronization of all switches in the fabric to ensure they simultaneously restart a new principal switch selection phase.

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